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England and Zimbabwe
Topic Started: Nov 24 2004, 11:48 AM (343 Views)
Admiralbill_gomec
UberAdmiral
Self-deleted for reasons of tact
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Fesarius
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Admiral
THREAD CLOSED by the head bubba.
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gvok
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ANYWAY, I think most reasonable people would agree that if lands are confiscated that some form of compensation should be given. I also think most reasonable people would agree that there should be some kind of statute of limitations involved.

The question is how long of a period? I tend to think that if the confiscation took place less than a generation ago then compensation is appropriate. I'm not sure if it should take place much after that.

On the one hand, illegal confiscations should not be rewarded. On the other hand people who inherited or legitimately purchased confiscated land should be secure in their ownership rights.
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Hoss
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Don't make me use my bare hands on you.
gvok
Dec 1 2004, 03:20 PM
ANYWAY, I think most reasonable people would agree that if lands are confiscated that some form of compensation should be given. I also think most reasonable people would agree that there should be some kind of statute of limitations involved.

The question is how long of a period? I tend to think that if the confiscation took place less than a generation ago then compensation is appropriate. I'm not sure if it should take place much after that.

On the one hand, illegal confiscations should not be rewarded. On the other hand people who inherited or legitimately purchased confiscated land should be secure in their ownership rights.

Hmmm.....

If you were once owner of the land that was 'illegally conficated', but not if you were the apparent heir to it. We can't assume that you would have inherited it just as you can't assume a double-play in baseball (geeze, I miss baseball season :( ).

Also, if the person purchased it legally during the now overthrown government's rule, they can't very well be treated as criminals. If those who stole it were defeated in a revolution and can't pay compensation, then what da ya do? Sometimes stuff is just lost and people get a raw deal.

My family has a great deal of land granted to it by Mexico in 1828. Since then the land has fallen under Texas, USA, Confederacy and USA (again) jurisdiction. Technically, Texas could have just said that the Mexican land grant was null and void and taken the land and that would've been that, but fortunately for us it didn't happen that way. As Texas was formed by people like my ancestors though it was unlikely that they would do such a thing.

Anyway, my point was that I would have no right to claim this land from the USA today and get it taken away from whoever has it now.
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gvok
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You sound like you are arguing with me, 38. :turkey:
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Hoss
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Don't make me use my bare hands on you.
gvok
Dec 2 2004, 10:04 AM
You sound like you are arguing with me, 38. :turkey:

I am not sure, I was rambling more than argueing. Trying to put some constraints on this delima as I see it.
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gvok
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Compensation does not always happen, true. But as a general proposition there does have to be some time limitation on the ability to recieve compensation. That's all I'm saying.
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